Magnetic field due to AB&CD=0
$\begin{aligned}
& \mathrm{B}0=\left|\mathrm{B}{\mathrm{R}1}-\mathrm{B}{\mathrm{R}_2}\right| \
& =\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{I}}{4 \mathrm{R}_2}-\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{I}}{4 \mathrm{R}_1} \
& =\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 12}{4}\left(\frac{1}{4 \pi}-\frac{1}{6 \pi}\right) \
& =12 \pi \times 10^{-7}\left(\frac{1}{12 \pi}\right) \
& =1 \times 10^{-7}
\end{aligned}$
K=1
