$\begin{aligned}
& \int_0^2 \mathrm{xF}^{\prime}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}=6 \
& =\left.\mathrm{xF}(\mathrm{x})\right|_0 ^2-\int_0^2 \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}=6 \
& =2 \mathrm{F}(2)-\int_0^2 \mathrm{xF}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}=6[\therefore \mathrm{f}(2)=2 \mathrm{F}(2)=2] \
& \int_0^2 \mathrm{xF}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}=-2 ...(1)\
& \Rightarrow \int_0^2 \mathrm{~F}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{dx}=-2 ...(2)
\end{aligned}Also\int_0^2 x^2 F^{\prime \prime}(x) d x=\left.x^2 F^{\prime}(x)\right|_0 ^2-2 \int_0^2 x^{\prime} F^{\prime}(x) d x=40\begin{aligned} & =4 F^{\prime}(2)-2 \times 6=40 \ & F^{\prime}(2)=13 \ & \therefore F^{\prime}(2)+\int_0^2 F(x)=13-2=11\end{aligned}$
Let f: R → R be a twice differentiable function such that f(2)=1. If F(x)=x f(x) for all x ∈ R, ∫_0^2 x ~F^prime(x) d x=6 and ∫_0^2 x^2 ~F^prime…
JEE Main 2025 — Mathematics Calculus
Let f:R→R be a twice differentiable function such that f(2)=1. If F(x)=xf(x) for all x∈R, ∫02x F′(x)dx=6 and ∫02x2 F′′(x)dx=40, then F′(2)+∫02 F(x)dx is equal to :
Held on 28 Jan 2025 · Verified 6 Jul 2026.
Options
- A
11
- B
13
- C
15
- D
9
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