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If z=x-i y and z^ 1 3=p+i q, then ( x + y q ) (p^2+q^2 ) is equal to

JEE Main 2004 — Mathematics Algebra

2004mcqmedium

If z=x−iyz=x-i yz=x−iy and z13=p+iqz^{\frac{1}{3}}=p+i qz31​=p+iq, then (xp+yq)(p2+q2)\frac{\left(\frac{x}{p}+\frac{y}{q}\right)}{\left(p^2+q^2\right)}(p2+q2)(px​+qy​)​ is equal to

Official previous-year question

Held on 30 Apr 2004 · Verified 6 Jul 2026.

Options

  1. A

    1

  2. B

    −2-2−2

  3. C

    2

  4. D

    −1-1−1

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