With reference to the comparison between Indian and American secularism, consider the following statements: 1. In the USA, neither the State nor religion can interfere in the affairs of one another. 2. In India, the State is strictly prohibited from intervening in religious affairs under any circumstance. 3. Both countries strictly prohibit the State from providing any financial aid to religious institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the comparison… - NCERT Class 8 Political Science MCQ

NCERT Class 8 Political Science — Chapter 2: Understanding Secularism

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With reference to the comparison between Indian and American secularism, consider the following statements:

In the USA, neither the State nor religion can interfere in the affairs of one another.
In India, the State is strictly prohibited from intervening in religious affairs under any circumstance.
Both countries strictly prohibit the State from providing any financial aid to religious institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

NCERT textbook question

From NCERT Social & Political Life III · Page 7

Options

A1 only
B2 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Did you get this right?

Solution

The correct option is (a).

Explanation

Secularism is interpreted differently in the Western context compared to the Indian context. Western secularism (specifically the American model) is based on the concept of a "Wall of Separation" between the State and religion, representing a negative concept of secularism. In contrast, Indian secularism embodies a "positive" concept, characterized by "principled distance," where the State gives equal respect to all religions and can intervene for social reform.

Statement 1 is Correct:

The US Constitution (First Amendment) adheres to a strict separation of powers between religion and the State. This means that the State cannot interfere in the affairs of religion, and religion cannot interfere in the affairs of the State. This is famously described as the "Wall of Separation."

Statement 2 is Incorrect:

Indian secularism does not strictly prohibit the State from intervening in religious affairs. The Constitution empowers the State to interfere in religious practices to ensure social welfare and reform. For example, the State can ban practices like untouchability (Article 17) or regulate the secular activities (economic, political, financial) associated with religious practice (Article 25).

Statement 3 is Incorrect:

While the US model is strict regarding financial separation, the Indian State is not strictly prohibited from providing financial aid to institutions run by religious communities. Under Article 30, the State grants financial aid to educational institutions administered by religious minorities. Furthermore, Article 27 only prohibits the State from compelling citizens to pay taxes specifically for the promotion of a particular religion; it does not prohibit the utilization of general tax proceeds for the maintenance of religious endowments or providing grants to religious educational institutions on a non-discriminatory basis.

Key Takeaway:

American secularism is defined by a strict mutual exclusion (strict separation) between State and Religion, whereas Indian secularism is defined by "principled distance," allowing the State to intervene in religious affairs for the purpose of social reform and equality.

Your note

More from Chapter 2: Understanding Secularism

Assertion (A): The US model of secularism prevents the State from intervening in the affairs of religion. Reason (R): The US Constitution allows the State to provide financial aid to religious institutions for educational purposes.

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In the context of Indian Secularism, the term "Principled Distance" implies that:

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Consider the following statement regarding the practice of secularism in the United States of America: "The legislature cannot declare any religion as the official religion. Nor can they give preference to one religion." This provision is primarily derived from which of the following?

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Consider the following statements regarding the "Pugri" (turban) in the context of Indian Secularism: 1. It is considered central to a Sikh's religious practice. 2. The Indian State forces Sikhs to remove it for security checks. 3. The State does not provide any exemption from wearing a helmet for Sikhs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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With reference to the "Strategy of Distancing" employed by the Indian State, consider the following: 1. Government spaces like law courts are legally mandated to display religious symbols of the majority. 2. Government schools are prohibited from celebrating any religious festival. 3. This strategy implies that the State is not ruled by any religious group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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