The correct option is 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The economic crisis of 1991 in India was primarily a Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis. It was characterized by a severe liquidity crunch where the government faced an imminent default on its external debt obligations and a critical depletion of foreign exchange reserves, necessitating immediate structural reforms.
Statement-wise Analysis
- Statement 1 is Correct: The crisis was triggered because the Government of India was unable to make repayments on its borrowings from abroad. The fiscal deficit was high, and the country faced a sovereign default situation, forcing it to approach international institutions like the IMF and the World Bank for a bailout.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Foreign exchange reserves were critically low during this period. They were not sufficient for more than a year of imports; rather, they had depleted to a level sufficient to finance imports for only about two weeks (a fortnight). This scarcity led to the immediate need to pledge gold reserves to secure foreign exchange.
- Statement 3 is Correct: The crisis was compounded by rising prices of essential goods. The annual rate of inflation reached double digits (peaking around 16.7% in August 1991), which eroded the purchasing power of the common people and added domestic instability to the external sector crisis.
Key Takeaway: The 1991 crisis was a convergence of a Balance of Payments deficit (inability to service debt and pay for imports) and high domestic inflation, which collectively necessitated the introduction of the New Economic Policy (LPG Reforms).